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The CISO Decision Brief

Questionnaire Response Governance Method

Sets rules for who may answer, what must be reviewed, and how commitments are tracked after submission.

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Format
Word
Size
73 KB
Length
23 pages
Version
1.1
Updated

What's inside

What changed

  1. 1.1

    Sharing evidence offers a recipient with no non-disclosure agreement a summary only where the summary's own sharing tier is Public, as EV-13 says, not any approved summary. The overview is described as built from library answers that may go out as they stand, naming only the evidence their sharing tiers allow, not from Public answers.

  2. 1.0

    Published.

Changes across this pack

Preview

The document from section 1, as you will receive it. Highlighted [[text]] is for you to replace; shaded guidance boxes are for you to delete before approval. The cover and document control pages are in the file.

Purpose

A questionnaire answer is a statement the organisation is held to. A customer reads it as a description of what the organisation does, relies on it when it decides to buy, and may point to it later if something goes wrong. So the organisation answers once, from an approved source, with evidence behind it, and says what the answer covers. A form is not the place to agree a new commitment. Promises are made in the contract, through a standard schedule and a short ladder of approvals, and an answer never promises what the contract or the controls do not support. The result is counts of requests answered on time, answers reused, evidence in date and commitments kept. It is never one score.

This method commits [[Organisation Name]] to the same approach. It sets 23 requirements, QG-01 to QG-23, for every security questionnaire, due diligence request, audit request and contract security schedule that a customer or prospect sends. Each requirement names the risks it answers (RK-01 to RK-12) and the evidence a reviewer looks at. Every other document in the Security Questionnaire & Due Diligence Response pack cites the requirements by number.

The other documents in the pack put the method into practice. The Questionnaire Intake, Drafting & Approval Procedure takes a request from receipt to submission. The Security Answer Library, Evidence & Attestation Library Index, Response Quality & Over-Commitment Checklist and Questionnaire Request Tracker hold the answers, the evidence, the checks and the record. The Customer-Facing Security Overview Document and the Standard Security Commitments Schedule are what you hand to customers.

What this method leaves to P06. P06 covers the questionnaires your organisation sends to its suppliers. This pack covers the ones it receives from its customers and answers as a supplier. P06's tiers, clause library and evidence checklist show what a customer that follows the same model will probably ask for. This pack does not change them.

Legal note. This document helps you answer security questionnaires from your customers. It is not legal advice, and an answer, a certificate or a schedule from this pack is not a statement that you comply with NIS2, DORA, the GDPR or any standard. A response is a statement your organisation is held to. Ask counsel to confirm any answer that a customer could treat as a promise or as a legal claim, and whether a customer is a financial entity or an essential or important entity.

Guidance — delete before approval

This is a Standard-tier document in the Security Policy Management pack: approved by the Head of Information Security, with the document owner consulted, and reviewed at least every 12 months. It states what must be true when you answer a customer. How a request is worked is in the procedure (A03).

Scope

This method applies to:

  • Requests: every questionnaire, due diligence call, audit request and contract security schedule from a customer or a prospect in a live sales opportunity. That includes the customer's own form, a standard form such as the CSA CAIQ or the Shared Assessments SIG, and a short question by email or on a call (QG-01).
  • People: everyone who receives, triages, drafts, confirms, approves, releases or sends a response, in sales, security, IT, legal, privacy and operations (QG-02).
  • Answers and evidence: the library of approved answers, the index of evidence and attestations, the commitments log and the copies of what was sent.

Out of scope: the questionnaires the organisation sends to its own suppliers, which the Third-Party Security Risk Management pack covers, and the reports it must make to authorities, which the Regulatory Incident Notification & Reporting pack covers.

Excluded: [[anything deliberately left out, and where it is covered instead, e.g. requests for a regulated product, handled by a separate quality process; or "None"]].

Everything the organisation already does for incidents, records, classification and supplier assurance still applies and is not repeated here: incidents under the Security Incident Management pack, reporting under the Regulatory Incident Notification & Reporting pack, records under the Cyber Resilience & Recovery pack and the three data levels under the Information Classification & Handling pack.

Guidance — delete before approval

A customer's form is the customer's tool. Nothing in this method says that a law makes you complete it. What you owe a customer comes from your contract. What this method controls is what you say, because the customer will treat it as true.

A prospect counts while a sales opportunity is live. A request from anyone else, such as a vendor asking for your documents, is declined with a recorded reason (A03).

How this method works

Every request answers five questions: who may answer; what may an answer say; who approves it; what may leave the building; what happens after it is sent. The requirements are the detail.

Question

Short answer

Who may answer?

The response lead and the topic owners. The account owner sends what the response lead releases and writes no security answer (QG-01 to QG-04).

What may an answer say?

What the library says, for the scope the answer states, with evidence or the words Statement only. An answer promises nothing (QG-05 to QG-07, QG-09).

Who approves it?

The kind of answer sets the approver. Nobody approves an answer they wrote (QG-08, QG-10, QG-11).

What may leave the building?

Evidence goes out by its sharing tier, in date, and a supplier's document only as the supplier's terms allow (QG-13 to QG-15).

What happens after it is sent?

A copy is kept, promises are logged and tracked, and a wrong answer is withdrawn and corrected (QG-16 to QG-19).

Five kinds of answer

The kind of an answer decides who approves it (QG-08). A library answer is the lightest. A promise or a claim of certification is the heaviest. The over-commitment checks below raise the kind of an answer when its words need it, so a short, harmless-looking sentence can still reach Legal.

Kind of answer

What it looks like

Who approves it

Library answer

An approved answer in date, with evidence in date, used word for word.

The questionnaire response lead releases it. No other approval.

Adapted answer

A library answer with changed words, a stale answer the owner has confirmed, or a draft with a flag that routes here.

The topic owner confirms it. It is then added to the library.

New answer

A question with no library answer behind it. After approval it joins the library.

The topic owner confirms it and the Head of Information Security approves it. It is then added to the library.

Contractual commitment

A promise a customer could enforce: a time, a frequency, a right of audit, a liability or a remedy.

Legal and the Head of Information Security. The Data Protection Officer joins where personal data is involved.

Legal or regulatory claim

A statement that the organisation is certified, compliant or aligned with a text.

Legal and the Head of Information Security. The Data Protection Officer joins where personal data is involved.

Nobody approves an answer they wrote. The next level takes their place (QG-08). For example, if the Head of Information Security writes a new answer, the executive decision-maker approves it. The questionnaire response lead releases a library answer and approves nothing they drafted themselves.

What an answer covers

Every answer carries one scope of claim (QG-07). The scope stops a true answer for one service from being read as a true answer for the company.

Scope

Name

What it means

CS-1

Whole company

True of the whole organisation, as the answer says.

CS-2

Named service

True of one named service, such as the online ordering service, and no other.

CS-3

Named site

True of named sites, such as the three warehouses, and no other.

CS-4

Named system or tool list

True of the systems or tools named, or on the list as at the date shown.

CS-5

Supplier's service, not ours

True of a supplier's service. The supplier, not the organisation, holds the control and the attestation.

CS-6

Written policy only

What the organisation's written policy requires. The answer does not say that every case meets it.

CS-7

Plan with a date

A plan that is not yet in place, stated with its date. It is never worded as present.

The state of a library answer

The library works out a state for each answer from its dates and its evidence (QG-12). An answer in one of the first six states below is not sent as it stands. The warning window is 60 days for evidence and a shorter window for review dates.

State

Sent as it stands?

What it means

Withdrawn

No

Retired. Never sent.

Not approved

No

A draft. Not sent until the approver has approved it.

No scope

No

It names no claim scope, or one that is not in the vocabulary. Fix the entry.

No evidence reference

No

It cites no evidence and is not marked as a statement only (QG-06).

Evidence expired

No

A document it cites is past its expiry. Renew the evidence or change the answer.

Stale

No

Its review date has passed. The owner confirms or changes it first (QG-12).

Evidence expiring

Yes

A document it cites expires within the warning window. Send it, and renew the evidence.

Review due

Yes

Its review date falls within the warning window. Send it, and review it.

Current

Yes

Approved, in date, with evidence in date.

What customers ask

A customer that follows the model of the Third-Party Security Risk Management pack asks for more as it rates you higher. The table is read from that pack's tiers, unchanged. It shows what to expect, and the method treats every tier the same way.

Tier the customer gives you

Questions

Evidence it asks for

Reassessed every

Tier 1

Critical

about 60

Independent assurance (a certification with a matching scope, or an independent audit report), recent penetration test summary, continuity test results

12 months

Tier 2

Important

about 35

A certification or independent report, or key policies with evidence they operate

24 months

Tier 3

Standard

about 15

Self-declaration, with evidence sampled

36 months

Tier 4

Minimal

about 5 (intake screening only)

None beyond the intake answers

null months

Where the questions come from

NIS2. Directive (EU) 2022/2555 is addressed to the Member States, and binds essential and important entities through their national law. Article 21(2)(d) and 21(3) ask a customer that is such an entity to manage the security of its direct suppliers and service providers, and to take into account the quality of their cybersecurity practices. They bind the customer. They do not give it a right to an answer from you. ENISA's guidance for hospitals says the Directive does not directly impose requirements on ICT suppliers and that its obligations take effect through national law. A questionnaire is the customer's way of meeting its own duty, and what you owe it comes from your contract. A supplier that is itself an essential or important entity has its own Article 21 duties, which this pack does not restate.

DORA. Regulation (EU) 2022/2554 binds the financial entities of its Article 2. Articles 28 to 30 say what a financial entity does about ICT third-party risk and what its contract with an ICT third-party service provider holds. A provider is bound to them through that contract. Article 30(3) asks for more where the service supports a critical or important function of the financial entity. A customer that is not a financial entity cannot rely on Article 30 to ask the same of you. Counsel confirms whether a customer is a financial entity and whether a service supports a critical or important function of it.

GDPR. Regulation (EU) 2016/679 binds controllers and processors. Where you process personal data on a customer's behalf you act as its processor, and Article 28(3) sets what the contract holds, including information to show compliance and audits. Where you decide the purposes and means yourself, you are a controller of that data. The role depends on the facts for each processing, and counsel confirms it. Article 32 asks both roles for security that is appropriate to the risk.

Industry forms and certificates. The CSA CAIQ, CCM and STAR, the Shared Assessments SIG and the certificates and reports a customer may ask for are industry practice and voluntary guidance. They are not law. No law named here requires you to complete a customer's form, and completing one, or holding a certificate or report, is not a statement that you comply with NIS2, DORA, the GDPR or any standard. This pack cites each as its publisher states it.

Guidance for buyers. ENISA's guidance and the NCSC's principles are guidance for buyers. They are not law, and they do not say what the contract between you and a customer must hold. ENISA says its publication does not endorse a regulatory obligation.

Risks this method answers

The method answers twelve named risks. Each requirement answers at least one, and each risk is answered by at least two requirements. If you adopt fewer requirements, check that each risk still has two.

Risk

What goes wrong

Requirements that answer it

RK-01

Two customers get different answers to the same question.

QG-01, QG-05, QG-11, QG-12, QG-19

RK-02

An answer describes a control that does not exist, does not work, or is not run by the person who describes it.

QG-02, QG-04, QG-06, QG-07, QG-08, QG-11, QG-20, QG-21

RK-03

An answer claims a wider scope or a stronger assurance than its evidence supports.

QG-06, QG-07, QG-10, QG-14, QG-20

RK-04

An answer or a form creates a promise that the contract or the controls do not support.

QG-08, QG-09, QG-10, QG-11, QG-21

RK-05

An answer or a document is out of date on the day it is sent.

QG-05, QG-12, QG-13, QG-23

RK-06

Evidence reaches a person who should not have it.

QG-13, QG-14

RK-07

A commitment made in a response is forgotten after the response is sent.

QG-16, QG-17

RK-08

A wrong answer stays uncorrected, or its customers are not told.

QG-16, QG-19, QG-23

RK-09

A request is missed, lapses or is answered late.

QG-03, QG-18

RK-10

Someone answers who has no authority or knowledge to answer.

QG-01, QG-02, QG-03, QG-04, QG-08

RK-11

Confidential information of the organisation, of another customer or of this customer is disclosed.

QG-15, QG-22

RK-12

A drafting tool invents or alters an answer.

QG-05, QG-11, QG-22

Guidance — delete before approval

Add a row for a risk of your own, such as a customer's contract that makes a questionnaire answer part of the agreement. Give it a requirement before you approve the method.

Requirements

The requirements keep the IDs QG-01 to QG-23 that every document in the Security Questionnaire & Due Diligence Response pack cites. Values in [[brackets]] are the pack's defaults. Set your own before approval. Under each requirement, the risks it answers and the evidence a reviewer looks at.

Receiving and owning a request

Every request has one owner, and only people who know the control write about it.

QG-01 Every security questionnaire, due diligence request, audit request and contract security schedule from a customer or prospect goes through this method. Nobody answers a customer's security question outside it, and that includes a short reply by email or on a call.

Answers: RK-01, RK-10. Evidence: the tracker (A07) showing every request, including those that arrived by email or on a call; no response in a customer's channel that the tracker does not hold.

QG-02 Only the questionnaire response lead and the topic owners the library names enter an answer. The account owner manages the relationship and sends only what the response lead has released. Nobody in sales writes a security answer.

Answers: RK-10, RK-02. Evidence: the list of people who enter answers (the response lead and the topic owners the library names); the sent items of the account owners for the period.

QG-03 Each request has one named response lead from receipt to close, a due date agreed with the customer, and an entry in the tracker (A07) within [[2]] working days of receipt.

Answers: RK-09, RK-10. Evidence: the tracker entry: one named response lead, the received date, the agreed due date, and the date the request was logged and triaged.

QG-04 A topic owner, the person who runs the control, writes or confirms every answer that is not already in the library. Nobody confirms an answer about a control they do not run.

Answers: RK-02, RK-10. Evidence: the library entry or the new-answer record naming the topic owner, who runs the control the answer describes.

What an answer says and what stands behind it

Answer from the library, back each claim with evidence, and say what it covers.

QG-05 Use the library answer unchanged when its state lets it go out as it stands (Current, Review due or Evidence expiring). Change an answer in the library first, with its owner's approval, and then use it. Do not edit an answer inside a customer's form.

Answers: RK-01, RK-05, RK-12. Evidence: the response compared with the library: each answer is the library's words, or an adapted answer with its confirmation; the library changed before the form did.

QG-06 An answer that states a control, a test or an assurance cites evidence from the index (A05) or says that it is a statement only. A claim with neither is not sent.

Answers: RK-02, RK-03. Evidence: the evidence reference in each library entry (EI IDs from the index, or the words Statement only).

QG-07 Every answer says what it covers: the whole company, a named service, a named site, a named system or tool list, a supplier's service, a written policy only, or a plan with a date. An answer never implies a wider scope than its evidence has.

Answers: RK-03, RK-02. Evidence: the scope of claim in each library entry, and the evidence item's own scope beside it.

Approval, promises and claims

The kind of answer sets the approver. A form never makes a promise.

QG-08 The approver follows the kind of answer. The response lead releases a library answer. The topic owner confirms an adapted answer. The Head of Information Security approves a new answer. Legal and the Head of Information Security approve a contractual commitment and a legal or regulatory claim. Nobody approves an answer they wrote: the next level takes their place.

Answers: RK-10, RK-04, RK-02. Evidence: the approval record for each answer that is not a library answer, with the kind of answer and the approver's role; no approver who wrote the answer.

QG-09 A form is not a contract. An answer creates no commitment. A commitment is made only through the standard schedule (A09) and its ladder. A promise found in an answer, such as a date, an action, an absolute word, a right of audit or access, or a liability, goes to Legal before the response is sent.

Answers: RK-04. Evidence: the commitments log (A07); the list of promises found in the response and the Legal decision on each; the standard schedule (A09) offered where a customer asked for terms.

QG-10 Name a certificate by its exact title, scope, issuer and dates, and say whose it is. Say that the organisation is certified, compliant or aligned only when the evidence index holds a current document that says it for the scope stated and Legal has confirmed the wording. A supplier's certificate is never presented as the organisation's own.

Answers: RK-03, RK-04. Evidence: the evidence item's title, scope, issuer and dates beside the answer; for a claim of certification or compliance, Legal's written confirmation.

QG-11 Run the response quality and over-commitment checklist (A06) on every response before it goes out. The approver that the kind of answer sets clears each flag, in writing.

Answers: RK-04, RK-02, RK-01, RK-12. Evidence: the completed checklist (A06) for the response, with every flag cleared in writing by the approver the kind of answer sets.

The library and the evidence

Keep answers in date, and send evidence only to those who may have it.

QG-12 Every topic and every library answer has a named owner. An answer is reviewed by its review date: [[12]] months after its last review, and [[6]] months for incident notice and AI. A stale answer is not sent until its owner has confirmed or changed it.

Answers: RK-05, RK-01. Evidence: the library's owner and review date for each answer; the count of answers past their review date; no stale answer in a sent response.

QG-13 Release evidence by its sharing tier. The response lead releases Public items. The Head of Information Security releases Under NDA items once a non-disclosure agreement covers the recipient, and releases a Summary only item as its approved summary and nothing more. A Never shared item is not released. Evidence past its expiry is not sent.

Answers: RK-06, RK-05. Evidence: the evidence index (A05) with the sharing tier of each item; the release record in the tracker; the non-disclosure agreement in force on the day, where a tier asks for one.

QG-14 A document that belongs to a supplier, such as a certificate or a report, is shared only as that supplier's terms allow, and is described as the supplier's.

Answers: RK-06, RK-03. Evidence: the supplier's terms in the index entry; the label that names the supplier on what was sent.

QG-15 A customer's questionnaire and the reply are Confidential. They are kept in the tracker's store and sent only through the customer's channel or an encrypted route. An answer to one customer carries no other customer's name, data or terms.

Answers: RK-11. Evidence: where the questionnaire and the reply are stored; the route used to send them; a check that no response names another customer.

Records, commitments, deadlines and correction

A response is a record. What it promises is tracked, and a wrong answer is put right.

QG-16 Keep an exact copy of every response as sent, its approvals, the evidence versions it cited and its covering statement, for [[3]] years after the relationship ends, or longer where a contract or a law asks (P22).

Answers: RK-08, RK-07. Evidence: the stored copy of each response as sent, with its approvals, the evidence versions it cited and its covering statement, and the retention period set.

QG-17 Log every commitment made in or around a response, with an owner, a due date and what supports it. The response lead reports open commitments and those past their due date every month.

Answers: RK-07. Evidence: the commitments log: each commitment with its owner, due date and support; the monthly report of open and overdue commitments.

QG-18 A request that cannot be met by its due date is renegotiated with the customer before that date, with a reason and a new date, and the change is recorded. A request is never left to lapse.

Answers: RK-09. Evidence: the tracker's due dates and any renegotiated date with its reason; no request left past its date without a record.

QG-19 A wrong answer is withdrawn from the library at once, every response that used it is found, and the customer is told by the correction route in this method. A material correction reaches the customer within [[5]] working days of the error being confirmed.

Answers: RK-08, RK-01. Evidence: the correction record: the withdrawn answer, the list of responses that used it, the rating, the approvals, and the date the customer was told.

Answers that need extra care

AI, incident notice and drafting tools each have a source of truth outside the form.

QG-20 An answer about the organisation's use of AI comes from the AI inventory and the reviews behind it (P24, P25) and is confirmed by the AI governance lead. It states no risk category and no role under any law.

Answers: RK-02, RK-03. Evidence: the AI inventory (P24) and the reviews behind it (P25), and the AI governance lead's confirmation of each AI answer.

QG-21 An answer about telling customers of an incident points to the organisation's incident notification rules (P09, P18) and to the period in the standard schedule. It states no period of its own and promises no notice that those rules do not provide.

Answers: RK-04, RK-02. Evidence: the incident notice answers, each pointing to the incident notification rules and the schedule's notice field, with no period of its own.

QG-22 A tool, including an AI assistant, may suggest a draft only from the library and only if it is on the approved list for the data it sees (P24). A drafted answer is a new or adapted answer and takes its approval. A customer's questionnaire is not put into a tool that is not approved for Confidential data.

Answers: RK-12, RK-11. Evidence: the approved tools list (P24) for the data the drafting tool sees; the record that a drafted answer took its approval; a check that no questionnaire was put into a tool not approved for Confidential data.

Reviewing the method

The method is reviewed on a fixed cycle and after the events that matter.

QG-23 This method is reviewed at least every [[12]] months (P04 Standard tier), and after a wrong answer is found, a new certificate or report is issued, a major system changes or the law changes. The response lead reports counts of requests, answers reused, answers past review, evidence nearing expiry and commitments open.

Answers: RK-05, RK-08. Evidence: the document control table; the record of the last review and the triggers considered; the counts reported to the leadership team.

Guidance — delete before approval

Keep the requirement IDs. If you remove one, keep its number and mark it "Withdrawn in version x.y", so records that cite it still point to the right text.

Set the bracketed values once, here: 12 months for a library review and 6 months for incident notice and AI, the working days to triage and to correct, the retention period and the evidence warning window. Use the same values in the procedure, the library, the index and the tracker.

The over-commitment checks

QG-11 asks you to check every response before it goes out. The Response Quality & Over-Commitment Checklist runs eight checks on the words of each answer. A check that fires is a flag. The flag does not mean the answer is wrong. It means a person with the right authority must read it, and clear it in writing, before it is sent. A library answer whose flag was cleared at approval keeps the flag cleared while its words stay unchanged. Change one word and it is checked again.

Check

Why it matters

Effect

OC-01 Absolute words

An absolute word is false the first time there is one exception.

Raises the answer to: adapted answer

OC-02 Time and frequency promises

A period or a frequency in a form reads as a promise the customer can hold you to.

Raises the answer to: contractual commitment

OC-03 Claims about everything

A claim about all systems, all sites or all staff covers more than the evidence does.

Raises the answer to: adapted answer

OC-04 Certification and compliance claims

A statement that the organisation is certified, compliant or aligned is a legal claim about a scope.

Raises the answer to: Legal or regulatory claim

OC-05 Promise verbs

We will and we shall turn a description into a promise.

Raises the answer to: contractual commitment

OC-06 Audit and access rights

A right to audit, inspect or enter is a contract term with its own conditions.

Raises the answer to: contractual commitment

OC-07 Liability, cost and remedy

Liability, indemnity, free work and service credits are contract terms.

Raises the answer to: contractual commitment

OC-08 The future stated as the present

A plan, worded as if it were in place, is a false statement.

Raises the answer to: adapted answer

The schedule is the place for promises. The Standard Security Commitments Schedule holds the commitments the organisation is willing to make, with fallback wording. A form points to it. It does not repeat it with new words.

Departures from the standard schedule

The ladder has three steps: the standard wording, the fallback wording, and an exception. The account owner offers the first two. An exception is a departure from the standard. It is rated on the bands of the Information Security Risk Management pack and approved as an exception under the Security Exception & Waiver Standard (P02-A02, Security Exception, Waiver & Segregation of Duties pack), with Legal added. The owner of the risk is never among the approvers. The approvers by band are below.

Band of the risk the departure leaves

Approved by

Longest exception

Low

Legal and Control owner

365 days

Medium

Legal and Head of Information Security

180 days

High

Legal, Head of Information Security and Accountable executive

90 days

Critical

Legal and Board or its equivalent

30 days

Guidance — delete before approval

Rate a departure on impact times likelihood, each from 1 to 4, as the Risk Assessment Methodology & Scoring Model sets them. Record the exception with the Security Exception Request & Approval Form before the customer is told yes.

Sharing evidence

Evidence supports an answer, and some of it must not leave the organisation. Every item in the Evidence & Attestation Library Index carries one sharing tier (QG-13). The tier decides who releases it and whether it may be sent at all.

Sharing tier

Rule

Released by

Public

May be sent to a customer or prospect with no further agreement.

Questionnaire response lead

Under NDA

May be sent only where a non-disclosure agreement covers the recipient on the day it is sent.

Head of Information Security

Summary only

The item itself is never sent. Its approved summary, named in the index, is sent in its place.

Head of Information Security

Never shared

Not sent outside the organisation. A change of tier is a decision of the Head of Information Security and Legal.

Nobody

An item past its expiry date is not sent. An item that expires within 60 days carries a warning, and you say so when you send it. A supplier's certificate or report is shared only as the supplier's terms allow, labelled as the supplier's, with its scope (QG-14). It is never presented as the organisation's own. Where a recipient has no non-disclosure agreement in force, offer the Public items, and a summary only where the summary's own sharing tier is Public (EV-13), and send the request for an agreement to Legal.

Guidance — delete before approval

A non-disclosure agreement covers the recipient and the document on the day the document is sent. An agreement with a customer's lawyers does not by itself cover the customer's security team. Ask Legal.

Correcting a wrong answer

A wrong answer is found sooner or later: by the owner at a review, by a customer, or by someone comparing two responses. QG-19 sets the route. The steps are the same every time, and the rating decides how far they go.

CR-1 Withdraw the answer from the library at once and record the cause (AL-10).

CR-2 Search the tracker and the stored responses for every response that used the answer, and list the customers.

CR-3 The topic owner states the correct answer. The response lead drafts the correction from it.

CR-4 Rate the correction minor or material with the method's rule.

CR-5 Minor: correct it in the library, tell the account owner, and put the right answer in the next response. No notice is sent.

CR-6 Material: Legal and the Head of Information Security approve a written correction. The account owner sends it within the correction window of the error being confirmed.

CR-7 Where the answer was written into the contract, or the customer relied on it, Legal decides whether the contract is amended.

CR-8 Where the error shows a control that does not work, or exposes personal data, report it as an event through the incident route (P09 IM-01).

CR-9 Log the correction in the commitments log as Corrected, add it to the measures, and review why it happened.

Rating. A correction is material when the wrong answer was an unsupported commitment or an overstated scope, when the customer relied on it, or when it is in the contract. Any other error is minor. A material correction is approved by Legal and the Head of Information Security, and the account owner sends it within [[5]] working days of the error being confirmed. A minor correction needs no notice. Where the error shows a control that does not work, or exposes personal data, it also goes to the incident route (CR-8).

Guidance — delete before approval

EXAMPLE: CM-01 was a promise in a form of 20 Nov 2025: "We test all systems every six months." The error was found on 26 Aug 2026. The method rates it material, so a written correction was due by 2 Sep 2026. It went to the customer on 2 Sep 2026.

Roles and responsibilities

Every request has one questionnaire response lead, named in the tracker. The response lead owns the request, keeps the library, the evidence index and the tracker, and reports the measures. One person may hold several roles in a small organisation, with two limits: nobody approves an answer they wrote, and nobody in sales writes a security answer (QG-02). The rules of the Information Security Risk Management pack and the Security Exception, Waiver & Segregation of Duties pack on approving exceptions stay as those packs set them.

Role

Responsibilities under this method

Questionnaire response lead

[[e.g. Information Security Manager]]

Owns each request from receipt to close, triages it, drafts from the library, runs the over-commitment checklist, releases responses, keeps the library, the evidence index and the tracker, and reports the measures. Never approves an answer they wrote.

Topic owner

[[the manager who runs the control the answer describes]]

Writes or confirms every answer on their topic that is not already in the library, keeps the library answers on the topic current, and says what each one covers.

Account owner

[[the sales or customer manager for the account]]

Owns the relationship, agrees due dates with the customer, offers the standard schedule and uses the ladder, and sends what the response lead releases. Writes and approves no security answer.

Head of Information Security

[[e.g. Head of Information Security]]

Approves this method (the response lead owns it) and new answers, releases evidence that is under a non-disclosure agreement or a summary, confirms the control behind each commitment, and approves exceptions in the Medium and High bands with the other approvers the band sets.

Legal

[[in-house or external counsel]]

Approves every contractual commitment and legal or regulatory claim, confirms the wording of certificate and compliance statements, reads non-disclosure agreements, and approves alternative wording in the schedule.

Data Protection Officer

[[or the privacy lead where no DPO is appointed]]

Advises on any answer about personal data, processors and transfers, and approves, with Legal and the Head of Information Security, a commitment or claim that involves personal data.

Head of IT

[[e.g. Head of IT]]

Writes or confirms answers about systems, settings and technical controls, and keeps the technical evidence current.

AI governance lead

[[e.g. Head of Risk]]

Confirms every answer about the organisation's use of AI against the AI inventory and the reviews behind it (P24, P25), and owns the AI topic in the library.

Executive decision-maker

[[e.g. Executive Committee, or the management body]]

Approves an exception in the High band or above and a commitment outside the standard schedule that the other approvers cannot settle. A Critical exception goes to the board or its equivalent (P05 RM-04).

The matrix sets out who is responsible (R), accountable (A), consulted (C) and informed (I) for each of 15 activities. Columns, in order: Lead for questionnaire response lead; Topic for topic owner; Acct for account owner; Sec for Head of Information Security; Legal for Legal; DPO for Data Protection Officer; IT for Head of IT; AI for AI governance lead; Exec for executive decision-maker.

Activity

Lead

Topic

Acct

Sec

Legal

DPO

IT

AI

Exec

QR-01 Receive, log and triage a request

A

C

I

QR-02 Agree the due date with the customer

A

R

QR-03 Draft answers from the library

A

C

QR-04 Write or confirm an answer that is not in the library

C

A

C

QR-05 Approve a new answer

C

R

A

QR-06 Confirm an answer about AI

C

R

A

QR-07 Approve a contractual commitment or a legal or regulatory claim

C

R

A

C

I

QR-08 Run the over-commitment checklist before a response goes out

A

C

C

QR-09 Release evidence by its sharing tier

R

A

C

QR-10 Keep the evidence index and chase renewals

A

R

C

QR-11 Own the library and its review dates

A

R

C

C

QR-12 Log and track commitments after a response

A

C

R

QR-13 Correct a wrong answer

R

R

A

R

QR-14 Offer the standard schedule and negotiate within the ladder

C

R

C

A

C

QR-15 Review this method

R

A

C

I

Guidance — delete before approval

Name each role by title, never a team. In a small organisation the same person is often the response lead, the topic owner for several topics and the Head of IT. Where that happens, ask someone outside the topic to read the answers and the checklist.

Review and change

Measures

The questionnaire response lead reports five measures each period (QG-23). Each is a count with the gaps named. None is combined into a score or a share.

Measure

What it counts

Target

QM-01 Responses sent by their due date

Requests answered in the period whose response left on or before the due date, out of all requests answered in the period.

All

QM-02 Questions answered from current library answers

Questions in the period's requests that had a Current library answer at triage, out of all questions in those requests. A declined request holds no questions.

[[Most]]

QM-03 Library answers past their review date

Approved answers whose review date has passed at the period end.

Zero

QM-04 Evidence items expired or expiring

Items in the evidence index, not withdrawn, that are past their expiry date or expire within the warning window at the period end.

Zero

QM-05 Commitments past their due date

Open commitments whose due date has passed at the period end.

Zero

Reviewing the method

This method is reviewed at least every [[12]] months (Security Policy Management pack, Standard tier), and after a wrong answer is found, a new certificate or report is issued, a major system changes or the law changes (QG-23). The Security Policy Management pack also names these triggers: a major incident, or an incident the document should have prevented; a material change to the organisation's activities, systems or suppliers; a change in law, regulation or a contract the document supports; an audit or assessment finding against the document; a significant change in the threats the document addresses. The review is recorded in the document control table.

Changing the method. The questionnaire response lead proposes a change and consults the topic owners and Legal. The approver of the Standard tier approves it. A change that tightens a requirement says by when responses already in progress must meet it.

Guidance — delete before approval

EXAMPLE, as at 30 Sep 2026: 3 of 4 responses went out by their due date; 422 of 576 questions had a current library answer; 6 library answers are past their review date; 1 evidence item expires within 60 days; 0 commitments are past their due date.

Document

Relationship

Questionnaire Intake, Drafting & Approval Procedure

Takes a request from receipt to submission: triage, drafting, approval and release

Security Answer Library

The approved answers, each with its scope, evidence, owner and review date

Evidence & Attestation Library Index

The evidence and attestations, with scope, dates and sharing tier

Response Quality & Over-Commitment Checklist

Checks every response for over-commitment before it goes out

Questionnaire Request Tracker

Records requests, due dates, evidence sent and commitments

Customer-Facing Security Overview Document

The overview you hand to a customer first, built from library answers that may go out as they stand, naming only the evidence their sharing tiers allow

Standard Security Commitments Schedule

The commitments you are willing to make, with fallback wording

P02-A02 Security Exception & Waiver Standard

A departure from the standard schedule is an exception, approved by the approver its band sets.

P04-A02 Policy Framework Standard

Who approves a document, and how often it is reviewed.

P05-A02 Risk Assessment Methodology & Scoring Model

The impact and likelihood scales and the bands that rate the risk a departure leaves.

P06-A04 Supplier Criticality & Tiering Model

The tiers a customer may give the organisation, and what each asks for.

P08-A04 Statement of Applicability Template

If the organisation seeks an ISO/IEC 27001 certificate, the Statement of Applicability is where its scope is set. P26 claims no certificate.

P08-A06 Certification Readiness Self-Assessment

The readiness position behind the answer to a question about ISO/IEC 27001.

P09-A03 Incident Response Plan

The incident response plan behind the incident answers. P26 states no clock.

P12-A02 NIS2 Scope & Entity Classification Assessment

Whether the organisation is itself an essential or important entity, which P26 does not decide.

P18-A02 EU Incident Notification Timeline Matrix (NIS2, DORA, GDPR)

The notification duties and clocks. The standard schedule points to them and does not repeat them.

P22-A04 Critical Service Recovery Objectives Matrix (RTO, RPO, MTD)

The recovery objectives behind the resilience answers.

P23-A08 Restore Test Evidence Report Template

The restore test evidence report behind the recovery attestation.

P24-A05 AI System & Use Case Inventory

The AI inventory behind every answer about AI.

P24-A07 AI Tool Approval & Data Permission Matrix

The tools approved for each data level.

P25-A02 Generative AI Security Standard

The security standard for generative AI features, which the AI answers rest on.

[[Information Security Policy; sales and contract review procedure; privacy policy]]

[[Parent policy; who may sign a customer's terms; whether processing personal data is lawful]]

Definitions

Term

Meaning in this method

Questionnaire

A set of questions about the organisation's security that a customer or prospect sends before buying, at renewal or after an event. It can be a customer's own form, a standard form such as the CSA CAIQ or the Shared Assessments SIG, a due diligence call, an audit request or the security schedule of a contract.

Response

Everything the organisation sends back for one request: the answers, the evidence and any covering statement.

Answer

One reply to one question. An answer is a statement the organisation is held to.

Library answer

An approved answer held in the Security Answer Library, with its scope, evidence, owner and review date. Used unchanged, it needs no new approval.

Adapted answer

A library answer whose words are changed for one request. It is confirmed by the topic owner.

New answer

An answer with no library answer behind it. It is approved by the Head of Information Security and then added to the library.

Scope of claim

What an answer covers: the whole company, a named service, a named site, a named system or tool list, a supplier's service, a written policy only, or a plan with a date. An answer never implies a wider scope than its evidence has.

Evidence

A document that supports an answer: a certificate, an audit report, a penetration test summary, a policy extract, a diagram, an insurance certificate or an attestation letter.

Attestation

A signed statement by a named person of a fact they have checked, such as the result of a recovery test, with its date and scope.

Sharing tier

The rule for who may receive an evidence item: Public, Under NDA, Summary only or Never shared.

Commitment

A promise to do something or to provide something, with a date or a continuing duty. A commitment found in an answer is logged, owned and tracked.

Contractual commitment

A commitment that a customer could enforce. It belongs in the contract, through the standard schedule or the negotiation ladder, and never in a form.

Over-commitment

A statement that promises or claims more than the contract, the controls or the evidence support: an absolute word, a time promise, a claim about everything, a claim of certification or compliance, or a disguised promise.

Stale answer

A library answer whose review date has passed. A stale answer is not sent until its owner has confirmed or changed it.

Customer

A business that buys from the organisation, or a prospect in a live sales opportunity. The organisation is the customer's supplier.

Document control

Approval record

Version

Approved by

Date

Evidence of approval

Next review by

[[1.0]]

[[Head of Information Security]]

[[YYYY-MM-DD]]

[[e.g. signed approval record, reference]]

[[YYYY-MM-DD]]

Review. See Review and change. This method is reviewed at least every 12 months (QG-23).

Guidance — delete before approval

This is a Standard-tier document: approved by the Head of Information Security. Nobody approves a document they own or wrote. The method's owner is the questionnaire response lead, so executive management approves it (Security Policy Management pack, PF-03).

Worked example: the hospital group's questionnaire

EXAMPLE, not part of the method. The organisation is the one used throughout the packs, now as a seller: a wholesale distributor of food and catering supplies with about 900 staff, an important entity under NIS2 in its Member State. It sells to business customers: retailers, a hospital group and a regional public body. Replace it with your own, or delete this section before approval.

The method was approved on 25 Aug 2026 by the Head of Information Security. The Questionnaire response lead owns the method, and nobody approves a document they own (P04 PF-03), so the Head of Information Security approves it at P04's Standard tier. The answers came from earlier forms and spreadsheets. Each keeps the date its owner last confirmed it, so some are past their review dates. The distributor holds no ISO/IEC 27001 certificate of its own. Its hosting provider holds one for the hosting service. P08's example is a different company, a software firm working towards its first certificate.

Triage. A hospital group sent a 300-question form on its own portal. At triage, 198 of 300 questions can be answered from current library answers. The decision was "answer in full". The form is above the largest standard set, so the response lead offered the overview and the evidence first (IN-06), and the customer still wanted its own form answered. The plan, by kind of answer: 198 library answers, 42 adapted answers and 60 new answers. For an access answer, for instance, the Head of IT confirms an adapted answer and the Head of Information Security approves a new one.

The checks at work. Five drafts for the form were written quickly, as drafts tend to be. The checklist flagged each one. The table shows the flags, the kind each draft became, who approved the corrected answer and what was sent instead.

Question

Draft answer

Flags

Became

Approved by

Sent instead

Q-087

Are you ISO 27001 certified?

Yes, we are ISO 27001 certified through our hosting provider.

OC-04

Legal or regulatory claim

Legal and Head of Information Security

Library answer SA-005

Q-114

Do you assess all critical suppliers every year?

We assess all critical suppliers every year.

OC-03

Adapted answer

Head of Information Security

Library answer SA-031

Q-203

Do you notify customers of an incident within 12 hours?

We notify all affected customers within 12 hours of any incident.

OC-02, OC-03

Contractual commitment

Legal and Head of Information Security

Library answer SA-018

Q-231

Do you test your systems every six months?

Penetration tests of all systems are carried out every six months.

OC-02, OC-03

Contractual commitment

Legal and Head of Information Security

Library answer SA-026

Q-266

Can we audit your premises and systems?

Yes, you may audit our premises and systems at any time.

OC-01, OC-06

Contractual commitment

Legal and Head of Information Security

The offer in the standard schedule (SC-03)

The position for the leadership team: 3 of 4 responses went out by their due date; 422 of 576 questions had a current library answer; 6 library answers are past their review date; 1 evidence item expires within 60 days; 0 commitments are past their due date.

The library: 50 answers: 28 Current, 3 Review due, 3 Evidence expiring, 6 Stale, 9 Draft, 1 Withdrawn; 34 can be sent as they stand. The tracker: 3 of 4 answered requests went out by their due date; 0 open requests overdue; 4 commitments open, 0 past their due date.

Guidance — delete before approval

The distributor holds no ISO/IEC 27001 certificate of its own. Its hosting provider holds one for the hosting service, so the first draft above ("Yes, we are ISO 27001 certified through our hosting provider") is a legal or regulatory claim, and the library answer says so plainly (QG-10, QG-14). The values above are the example's. Replace them with yours.

Adapting this template

Small organisation

Guidance — delete before approval

Keep all 23 requirements. In a small organisation the same person is often the response lead, the topic owner for several topics and the approver of a new answer. Where that happens, ask a colleague who did not write the answer to read it, and keep a short written record of each approval. Begin with the ten most asked questions and the evidence you can already share, then grow the library from the forms you receive.

Begin with the requests you already have. Log every open form in the tracker this week, with a due date, and answer from the library as it grows.

Regulated entity (NIS2, DORA, GDPR)

Guidance — delete before approval

If you are an essential or important entity under NIS2, or a financial entity under DORA, you have your own duties and answer questionnaires from customers in the same way. Keep the same requirements and ask counsel whether your sector rules ask for more. Customers that are financial entities may ask for the contract terms in Article 30 of DORA. Counsel confirms that, and the standard schedule (A09) is where you answer it.

Where you process personal data for a customer, the processing terms are in the contract, and an answer about your role comes from Legal and the Data Protection Officer, for the customer concerned. The incident pack and the regulatory reporting pack hold the notice duties and clocks. This method restates none of them.

IT and services run by suppliers

Guidance — delete before approval

If your managed IT provider, cloud provider or another outsourced service provider runs part of what an answer describes, say so in the answer and give it the scope of a supplier's service (CS-5). Collect the provider's certificates and reports as part of its assessment under the Third-Party Security Risk Management pack and share them only as its terms allow (QG-14). Keep the provider's contract contacts in the tracker, so that you can confirm a fact the same week a customer asks.

Delete this section before approval.

Framework references

These references show where this document supports an external framework. They indicate relevance only and do not reproduce the text of any standard. Editions referenced: Directive (EU) 2022/2555 (NIS2); Regulation (EU) 2022/2554 (DORA); Regulation (EU) 2016/679 (GDPR); NIST CSF 2.0; ISO/IEC 27001:2022 incl. Amd 1:2024 (by number and title only); CSA CCM, CAIQ and STAR, the Shared Assessments SIG, and SOC 2 (by name and title only), as their publishers state them; as published and read on 9 October 2026.

Framework

Reference

Supported by

ISO/IEC 27001:2022

Clause 4.2 — Understanding the needs and expectations of interested parties

Purpose and Scope: the needs and expectations of interested parties, which include customers who ask how you protect their information

NIST CSF 2.0

GV.OC-03 — “Legal, regulatory, and contractual requirements regarding cybersecurity - including privacy and civil liberties obligations - are understood and managed”

Scope and Roles: legal, regulatory and contractual requirements about cybersecurity are understood and managed, including what customers ask of you

NIS2 — Directive (EU) 2022/2555

Article 21(2)(d) — “supply chain security, including security-related aspects concerning the relationships between each entity and its direct suppliers or service providers”

Purpose and Scope: the customer that is an essential or important entity must manage the security of its direct suppliers, which is why it sends you a form. It gives the customer no right to an answer

NIS2 — Directive (EU) 2022/2555

Article 21(3) — measures take into account each direct supplier's specific vulnerabilities and the overall quality of its products and cybersecurity practices, including secure development

Requirements: the customer takes into account each supplier's specific vulnerabilities and practices, so an answer is read as a description of yours (QG-06, QG-07)

DORA — Regulation (EU) 2022/2554

Article 28(1) — ICT third-party risk managed as part of ICT risk, proportionately; the financial entity remains fully responsible

Where the questions come from: a financial entity manages ICT third-party risk and stays responsible for it. Counsel confirms whether a customer is one

DORA — Regulation (EU) 2022/2554

Article 30(2) — minimum contract content: services, locations, data protection, data return, service levels, incident assistance, cooperation with authorities, termination rights, training

Approval, promises and claims: what a financial entity's contract with an ICT service provider holds, which the standard schedule (A09) answers (QG-09)

GDPR — Regulation (EU) 2016/679

Article 28(3) — a binding contract with the processor, covering documented instructions, confidentiality, security, sub-processors, assistance, return or deletion of data, and audits

Approval, promises and claims: where you process personal data for a customer, the processing contract holds set terms. Counsel confirms the role (QG-08, QG-09)

GDPR — Regulation (EU) 2016/679

Article 28(3)(h) — the processing contract stipulates that the processor “makes available to the controller all information necessary to demonstrate compliance with the obligations laid down in this Article and allow for and contribute to audits, including inspections, conducted by the controller or another auditor mandated by the controller”; the processor immediately informs the controller if, in its opinion, an instruction infringes data protection law

Evidence sharing: the processor makes available the information needed to show it follows Article 28 and allows for audits, which report-based assurance answers (QG-13)

GDPR — Regulation (EU) 2016/679

Article 32(1) — appropriate technical and organisational measures to ensure a level of security appropriate to the risk, taking into account the likelihood and severity of risk to people's rights and freedoms

Requirements: security of processing that suits the risk, which is what most answers describe (QG-05 to QG-07)

GDPR — Regulation (EU) 2016/679

Article 24(1) — the controller implements appropriate technical and organisational measures to ensure, and to be able to demonstrate, that processing is performed in accordance with the Regulation; “Those measures shall be reviewed and updated where necessary.”

Roles: the controller puts in place measures and can show it does, so the organisation keeps a record of what it said (QG-16)

GDPR — Regulation (EU) 2016/679

Article 5(2) — “The controller shall be responsible for, and be able to demonstrate compliance with, paragraph 1 (‘accountability’).”

Records: the controller is able to show it follows the principles, so a response and its approvals are kept (QG-16)

ENISA, Procurement guidelines for the cybersecurity of hospitals and healthcare providers (July 2026)

Section 1.2 — “While the NIS2 Directive does not directly impose requirements on information and communications technology (ICT) suppliers”, its obligations “take effect through national laws that transpose the directive into domestic legislation”. Section 1.3 says the guidance also addresses suppliers, “helping them understand the cybersecurity requirements expected when delivering solutions to healthcare entities”. The legal notice says the publication does not endorse a regulatory obligation

Purpose: ENISA says NIS2 does not directly impose requirements on ICT suppliers and that its obligations take effect through national law. It does not endorse an obligation

UK NCSC, Supply chain security guidance

Principle 5, “Set and communicate minimum security requirements for your suppliers” — “You should set minimum security requirements for suppliers which are justified, proportionate and achievable.” It asks the buyer to consider “different protection requirements for different types of contracts, based on the risk associated with them”, and to avoid forcing every supplier to meet the same set

What customers ask: a buyer is told to set requirements that are justified, proportionate and achievable, and different for different contracts (QG-09)

UK NCSC, Supply chain security guidance

Principle 10, “Build assurance activities into your supply chain management” — “Build the 'right to audit' into all contracts and exercise this.” It adds that this “might not always be possible or desirable, particularly where this relates to a Cloud service”, and that, where justified, a buyer builds in assurance requirements such as penetration tests, external audit or formal security certifications

Approval, promises and claims: a buyer is told to build in a right to audit, and that this may not suit a cloud service. Report-based assurance is the default offer (QG-09)

ISO/IEC 27001 references name the clause or control this document relates to, by number and title only. No text of the standard is reproduced. A reference does not say that meeting a clause or control meets any requirement of NIS2, DORA or the GDPR, or that your organisation holds a certificate.

A reference says what its source asks of the customer or the provider, and which CISO Times document helps with that work. It does not say that an answer, a certificate or a schedule from this pack meets a requirement of NIS2, DORA or the GDPR.

This pack does not say which certificate, report or form meets a requirement of NIS2, DORA or the GDPR. Each reference says what its source asks of the customer or the provider and which CISO Times document helps with that work. Using a document does not by itself show that a requirement is met.

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